Maybe I am just stubborn but I just don't think the line should be drawn at authorization to use a computer. I think that attaching guilt at this point will work effectively in cases where the wrongdoing is obvious (the bank robber going behind the teller window to transfer funds electronically) but that this methodology falters under more ambiguous situations (An employee using a company computer for uses other than what their boss intended, but which may serve to better the company in the long run). For this reason I am going with a very strict definition for "without authorization."
A person accesses a computer "without authorization" if in respect to that specific computer or network their authorization is not present in the form of
a) express permission to use or access by the system's owner; or
b) implied permission to use or access based on the necessity or reasonableness of use of the computer by someone in the defendant's position within the home, organization, institution, etc.; or
c) Implied permission based on the programming and arrangement of the computer or network in a manner that allows access by users not physically present; or
d) Implied permission to use or access based on the actions of the owner or other users of the computer or network as perceived from the standard of a reasonable person in the position of the defendant.
Morris: authorized
Shurgard: authorized
DoubleClick: authorized
Mrs. Bluebeard: authorized
Bank Robber: unauthorized